How is the islamic economy superiority proved in practice?
Date 17 February 2026 & Clock 00:34
Question 39:It is normally said that Islamic economy enjoys the best economic system and regulations, far better than those of other economic schools. My question is: How is this superiority proved in practice? How does Islam safely guarantee a sound economy without taxation? Please, answer the question in as much detail as possible.
Answer 39: The superiority of the Islamic economic system is because of the strong rules and regulations existing in it. By reviewing various Islamic contracts such as Mozarebah, partnership, Ju'alah and the likes which have their independent particular features, impacts and aspects, we can understand the superiority of the Islamic economy to other economic schools. There is no economic school that may have such different contracts with the special features that have been explained and demonstrated in the Islamic jurisprudence. Islam encourages earning halal property and has considered it a kind of jihad in the way of God. It has also forbidden usury and allowed interest-free loans. These rules, if applied correctly, would solve many a number of social problems. Khums, zakat and their important results as well as their specific consumption areas are a good reason for the superiority of the rules of the Islamic economic system. Of course, you know that the aim of Islam's economy and its strategy is not the enlargement of capital assets despite encouraging productive labor and work but the aim of Western economic schools is to develop and increase wealth in any possible manner.
Philosophy of ghusl
Date 17 February 2026 & Clock 00:34
Question 4: Kindly, explain the philosophy of ghusl (ritual bathing/major ablution).
Answer 4: We cannot explain exactly the rationale behind such issues but we know that some form of uncleanness and impurity comes into being somehow within the body of the person upon whom ghusl has become obligatory. The impurity is removed with ghusl and ritual cleanness is restored. You know that one who performs major ablution should make niyat of seeking nearness (qurbat) to God. The ablution is not a mere washing; it has to be combined with niyat. The firmer and purer the intention, the more the internal brightness.
Peform ghusl for prayer
Date 17 February 2026 & Clock 00:34
Question 10: Several drops of semen come out of me after passing urine, do I have to perform ghusl for prayer and fast each time the semen gets released?
Answer 10: If you are certain that the emission is semen, you should perform ghusl. Likewise, if you want to observe fast in the month of Ramadhan or make up the missed fasts, you must make ghusl before morning Adhan (or dawn). If you fail to make ghusl for anyone reason, you should perform Taymmum in lieu of ghusl.
What is the Shariah law concerning the ruling of a Mujtahid that permits an act and the ruling of another Mujtahid that prohibits it?
Date 17 February 2026 & Clock 00:34
Question 27: What is the Shariah law concerning the ruling of a Mujtahid that permits an act and the ruling of another Mujtahid that prohibits it? For instance, some scholars consider clapping in the gatherings held for the Infallible Imams (a.s.) as permissible whereas others do not allow it.
Answer 27: Every individual should act according to the verdict of his own Marja’. If two Mujtahids are equally learned and they hold different views, you are free to follow either of them.
When a textual ordinance (nas) contradicts expediency (maslaha), which one precedes the other?
Date 17 February 2026 & Clock 00:34
Question 23: When a textual ordinance (nas) contradicts expediency (maslaha), which one precedes the other? Which one goes first, the ordinance or the expediency? Is expediency preferable in this circumstance?
Answer 23: This interpretation seems to be artificial as it does not render a clear-cut meaning for conflict between textual ordinance and expedience because conflict means contradiction of two arguments in the legislative (theoretical) level whereas the said criterion does not exist in the given presumption. Certainly, if expediency is based on observing a binding injunction, then it has to be discussed theoretically that where a textual ordinance and expediency cannot be observed together while both of them are contradicting each other, which one precedes the other? Obviously, the more important of the two has to be taken into consideration and fulfilled.
This question requires a lengthy answer. Should you like to learn more, you can refer to demonstrative books in this regard. May Allah grant you success.
